【单选题】

According to the passage, why is the inequality-adjusted income per head in France higher than in America
A．(A) Because the GDP per capita in France is substantially higher than in America.

B．(B) Because France witnessed a sharp increase of inequality in income distribution.
C．(C) Because income distribution is more polarized in America than in France.
D．(D) Because the two countries adopt different methods of national-account measurement.